Final Exam - June

Part I	(60%)

Instructions:	Complete each of the following with the best fitting answer and place your answer on the answer sheet provided.

1.	How does limestone affect acid rain?

A. it causes the acid rain to become more acidic

B. it neutralizes the acid rain

C. it lowers the pH of the acid rain

D. no effect

2.	Which of the following is not a physical change?

A. cutting paper

B. changing water to steam

C. Propane burning in a barbeque

D. food coloring changing the color of water

3.	The reaction of an acid and a base to produce a salt and water is what type of reaction?

A. neutralization

B. single replacement

C. hydrocarbon combustion

D. simple composition

4.	Properties which describe how one substance reacts with another are called .........

A. physical properties

B. chemical properties

C. reaction properties

D. properties of matter

5.	Which of the following is not a molecular element?

A. hydrogen

B. chlorine

C. neon

D. phosphorus

6.	A combination of two or more elements which cannot be separated by physical means.

A. solution

B. mixture

C. compounds

D. any of the above

7.	What do we call group 1 on the periodic table?

A. alkali metals

B. alkaline earths

C. halogens

D. noble gases

8.	Atoms of the same element but with different numbers of neutrons.

A. halogens

B. isotopes

C. molecular elements

D. multivalent atoms

9.	Which of the following groups contains the least reactive metals on the periodic table?

A. alkali metals

B. alkaline earths

C. halogens

D. noble gases

10.	Why do atoms become ions when forming ionic compounds?

A. to share electrons

B. to fill their outer energy level and thus become more stable

C. to balance neutrons

D. because ions are more reactive

11.	Which of the following is false about ionic bonds?

A. ions with opposite charges form ionic bonds

B. ionic bonds are formed by the transfer of electrons

C. ionic bonds are formed by the sharing of electrons

D. they usually involve a metal and a nonmetal

12.	Groups of atoms bonded together with an overall ionic charge.

A. ionic compounds

B. polyatomic ions

C. multivalent atoms

D. molecular compounds

13.	Which of the following is not evidence that a chemical reaction has taken place.

A. when you boil water bubbles are formed

B. two clear liquids are added and produce a yellow solid

C. zinc metal is placed in an acid and gas bubbles are produced

D. propane is burned and produces heat and light

14.	Which of the following illustrates an exothermic reaction?

A. A + B C + D

B. A + B + energy C + D

C. A + B + energy C + D + energy

D. A + B C + D + energy

15.	Which of the following describes an object experiencing uniform motion.

A. It is accelerating

B. It is traveling in a straight line at constant speed

C. It is traveling at constant speed

D. It is experiencing free fall

16.	The distance traveled by an object in a given time describes the object's ..........

A. Instantaneous speed

B. Speed

C. Acceleration

D. Slope

17.	The slope of a velocity - time graph describes the object's ................

A. Acceleration

B. Deceleration

C. Distance

D. Instantaneous speed

18.	John was driving his car and looked at the speedometer which read 90 km/h. What does this mean?

A. It was his acceleration rate

B. It was his average speed

C. It was his instantaneous speed

D. It was his velocity

19.	The amount velocity changes per one second time interval is called ........

A. Speed

B. Change in velocity

C. Uniform motion

D. Acceleration

20.	What is the speed of a bicycle which travels 200m in 50s at a constant speed?

A. 4m/s

B. 2m/s

C. 2m/s2

D. 5000m

21.	Convert 230 km/h to m/s.

A. 64 m/s

B. 882 m/s

C. 6.4 m/s

D. 230 m/s

22.	If the formula for calculating speed is, , what is the formula for calculating t?

A.

B.

C.

D.

23.	When the driver of a car steps on the brake pedal, the car .........

A. Accelerates

B. Decelerates

C. Loses speed

D. Both B and C

24.	In what way does energy from the sun travel from the sun to the earth?

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. reflection

25.	The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a specific mass of a substance by 1oC is .........

A. Specific heat capacity

B. Thermal energy

C. Solar radiation

D. radiant heat

26.	How does the specific heat capacity of water affect the climate of regions close to large bodies of water?

A. Results in warmer summers

B. Results in cooler winters

C. It has a moderating effect

D. it produces tornados

27.	The amount of heat required to convert 1.0g of ice into liquid water is called ..........

A. The heat of vaporization of water

B. The heat of fusion of water

C. Water's specific heat capacity

D. evaporation

28.	The component of the atmosphere consisting of the earth's ozone layer.

A. Lithosphere

B. stratosphere

C. Hydrosphere

D. troposphere

29.	Which of the following statements is true?

A. The amount of water on the earth is ever increasing

B. The amount of water on the earth is ever decreasing

C. The amount of water on the earth is fixed but recirculates by the water cycle

D. water covers 1/5 of the earth's surface

30.	What percentage of the energy reaching the earth is absorbed by the earth?

A. 30%

B. 26%

C. 70%

D. 90%

31. Which of the following is not a reason why the earth is able to maintain a constant temperature when energy is constantly added by the sun?

A. the earth radiates energy back into space

B. the oceans are able to absorb large amounts of energy

C. the earth's centre is molten rock

D. energy is used to evaporate water

32.	The percentage of water vapour in the air compared to the maximum amount of water the air can hold at a given temperature is referred to as ............

A. specific heat capacity

B. heat of fusion

C. heat of vaporization

D. relative humidity

33.	Where does the energy which drives the water cycle come from?

A. Sun

B. Burning fossil fuels

C. Geothermal energy

D. wind energy

34.	The evaporation of water from plants is called ........

A. Precipitation

B. Transpiration

C. Condensation

D. perspiration

35.	In the fall, what happens to air temperatures as water freezes?

A. air temperatures drop

B. air temperatures do not drop as much as they would without water present

C. air temperatures rise

D. air temperatures rise but not as much as they would if no water were present

36.	Which of the following is not a factor which affects air currents?

A. Our proximity to the sun

B. Uneven warming due to shape of the earth

C. The spinning of the earth on its axis

D. Uneven heating of land and water

37.	Which of the following occurs as altitude increases?

A. pressure increases

B. pressure decreases

C. air becomes more dense

D. both B and C

38.	The bending or deflection of moving air currents in response to the earth's rotation is called ........

A. Cyclones

B. The coriolis effect

C. Hurricanes

D. a chinook

39.	Which of the following is false of air pressure?

A. Air pressure remains stable at all times

B. Air pressure is the force per unit area

C. It is measured in kiloPascals

D. high altitudes have low air pressure

40.	Which of the following is the most abundant greenhouse gas in our atmosphere?

A. carbon dioxide

B. CFC's

C. methane

D. nitrous oxide

41.	In which region does the Sun's rays make such a small angle with the earth's surface that the energy is spread over a large area?

A. temperate zones

B. at the equator

C. polar zones

D. tropical zones

42.	Many hot water heaters use the combustion of natural gas to heat the water in the tank. When 230 g of water at 10oC is heated to 65oC, how much heat is required? ( The specific heat capacity of water is c = 4.19 J/goC)

Formula:

A. 53J

B. 53kJ

C. 350J

D. 53000kJ

43.	Which of the following devices is used to measure humidity?

A. barometer

B. anemometer

C. psychrometer

D. thermometer

44.	Which of the following types of satellites continuously orbit the earth passing over a specific area only once every twelve hours.

A. Weather satellites

B. Polar orbiting satellites

C. Geostationary satellites

D. CRAY satellites

45.	Which of the following statements is true regarding the types of radiation that are absorbed or emitted by the earth and the air surrounding the earth?

A. short are waves absorbed by the air

B. long waves are absorbed by the earth's surface

C. short waves are absorbed by the earth's surface

D. none of the above

46.	The interactions of all the living organisms with the non-living factors in a given area powered by a flow of energy are called a(n) ...............

A. Sustainability

B. Ecosystem

C. Abiotic factors

D. biodiversity

47.	The non-living factors affecting an ecosystem are called .........

A. Biotic factors

B. Abiotic factors

C. Biodiversity

D. limiting factors

48.	Which of the following would be considered a density-independent factor?

A. disease

B. availability of food

C. forest fire

D. availability of water

49.	Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?

A. Feeding relationships

B. Water

C. Light

D. Temperature

50.	Which of the following terms describes the competition between polar bears for seals as food?

A. interspecific

B. specific

C. non-specific

D. intraspecific

51.	In which zone does 80% of the world's photosynthesis take place?

A. the tropical rain forest

B. the bottom of the ocean

C. the top 200 m of the ocean

D. fresh water ponds and lakes

52.	The largest population of a species that an environment can support is called its .........

A. maximum population

B. carrying capacity

C. maximum capacity

D. population capacity

53.	Which of the following is true of biodiversity?

A. it increases with the size of an area

B. it increases as we move closer to the equator

C. is less in areas stressed due to overpopulation

D. all of the above

54.	Green plants can transform energy from the sun into food during photosynthesis. This characteristic makes plants ........

A. chemoautotrophs

B. Photoautotrophs

C. consumers

D. all of the above

55.	Which of the following best describes humans who eats both plants and animals?

A. Autotrophs

B. Herbivores

C. Carnivores

D. omnivores

56.	The process which recycles materials and nutrients and makes them available to be used again is called .........

A. Rotting

B. Scavenging

C. Decomposition

D. recycling

57.	The model which expresses all the possible feeding relationships within an ecosystem is called a ..........

A. food web

B. Food chain

C. Food diagram

D. pyramid of energy

58.	The process whereby chemical bonds in food are broken and energy is released is called.........

A. photosynthesis

B. Cellular respiration

C. Transpiration

D. the nitrogen cycle

59.	This cycle ensures that carbon dioxide is available for plants and that oxygen is available for animals.

A. the carbon cycle

B. Cellular respiration

C. Transpiration

D. the nitrogen cycle

60.	What is the maximum number of levels in most food chains?

A. 3

B. 8

C. 5

D. no limit

Part II	(40%)

Instructions:	Complete each of the following questions in the space provided. Show your workings where appropriate as marks may be awarded for partially correct answers.

1.	(A)	List four properties of metals and nonmetals.(2 marks)

(B)	Construct the electron energy level diagram for potassium and the potassium ion. Show what happens for potassium to become an ion.(1 mark)

(C)	For each of the following write the name or the formula and identify the type of compound. { ie. Ionic (i), molecular (m), or acid (a) }(5 marks)

Name	Formula	Type
1.	1.
2. Dinitrogen monoxide	2.
3. Mercury (II) sulphide	3.
4.	4.
5.	5.

(D)	Balance each of the following equations and give the type of reaction it represents.

(2 marks)

(1)	Type:

(2)	Type:

2.	(A)	Determine the time required for an object to travel 15.3 km at 25 m/s. (Hint: Change km to m/s first)(3 marks)

(B)	Jim drove 150km on a gravel road for 2 hours and he drove on a paved road 200km in 2 hours. What was Jim's average speed?(3 marks)

(C)	Calculate the acceleration rate of Mr. Hicks' car if he accelerates from 85Km/h to 120km/h in 4 seconds. (Of course, he gets a ticket ) (2 marks)

(D)	Use the following data to construct a Distance - Time graph. Using the graph find the speed of the hummer in km/h. ( Use the graph paper on the next page)

A Hummer Traveling on a Country Road
Time(min)	Distance(km)
0	0
1.0	1.0
2.0	1.8
3.0	2.9
4.0	4.2
5.0	5.0
6.0	5.9
7.0	6.9
8.0	8.2
9.0	9.2

3.	(A)	Using two topics from below discuss human impacts on the nitrogen cycle.

1. Effects on soil

2. Effects on the atmosphere

3. Effects on fresh water ecosystems

4. Effects on marine ecosystems

(B)	With the aid of a diagram discuss the water cycle.(4 marks)

(C)	Describe the limitations of scientific knowledge and technology in making predictions related to weather.

(D)	Discuss the impacts of severe weather systems on economic, social and environmental conditions.

5.	(A)	Construct a food chain using the organisms below. Label each organism as a producer, carnivore, omnivore, or herbivore.(3 marks)

Bear, Birch Trees, Fox, Rabbit

(B)	With the aid of a diagram explain the Pyramid of Energy. (Include in your answer why it is shaped like it is and what happens to the energy)(3 marks)

(C)	Imagine a tropical island covered in dense jungle-like vegetation has be used for the test sit of a nuclear bomb. After the test all that remains is bare rock. Describe the steps in the type of succession which must occur to restore the island. After the succession is complete what type of climax community will result?

(D)	Describe why present governments consider Environmental Impact Assessments to be important and discuss four benefits of Environmental Impact Assessments.